FREE PDF TRUSTABLE CS0-003 - VALID COMPTIA CYBERSECURITY ANALYST (CYSA+) CERTIFICATION EXAM EXAM SYLLABUS

Free PDF Trustable CS0-003 - Valid CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Exam Syllabus

Free PDF Trustable CS0-003 - Valid CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Exam Syllabus

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q355-Q360):

NEW QUESTION # 355
A vulnerability management team is unable to patch all vulnerabilities found during their weekly scans. Using the third-party scoring system described below, the team patches the most urgent vulnerabilities:

Additionally, the vulnerability management team feels that the metrics Smear and Channing are less important than the others, so these will be lower in priority. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system?

  • A. InLoud:
    Cobain: Yes
    Grohl: No
    Novo: Yes
    Smear: Yes
    Channing: No
  • B. ENameless:
    Cobain: Yes
    Grohl: No
    Novo: Yes
    Smear: No
    Channing: No
  • C. TSpirit:
    Cobain: Yes
    Grohl: Yes
    Novo: Yes
    Smear: No
    Channing: No
  • D. PBleach:
    Cobain: Yes
    Grohl: No
    Novo: No
    Smear: No
    Channing: Yes

Answer: C

Explanation:
The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is:
TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No
This vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should be patched first.


NEW QUESTION # 356
An analyst is evaluating the following vulnerability report:

Which of the following vulnerability report sections provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs?

  • A. Payloads
  • B. Metrics
  • C. Profile
  • D. Vulnerability

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Metrics.
The Metrics section of the vulnerability report provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Metrics section contains the CVE dictionary entry and the CVSS base score of the vulnerability. CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures and it is a standardized system for identifying and naming vulnerabilities. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System and it is a standardized system for measuring and rating the severity of vulnerabilities.
The CVSS base score is a numerical value between 0 and 10 that reflects the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability, such as its exploitability, impact, and scope. The CVSS base score is composed of three metric groups: Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metric group captures the characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The Base metric group consists of six metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, User Interaction, Scope, and Impact. The Impact metric measures the effect of a vulnerability on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the affected resources.
In this case, the CVSS base score of the vulnerability is 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The Impact metric of the CVSS base score is 6.0, which indicates a high impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Therefore, the Metrics section provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs.
The other sections of the vulnerability report do not provide information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Payloads section contains links to request and response payloads that demonstrate how the vulnerability can be exploited. The Payloads section can help an analyst to understand how the attack works, but it does not provide a quantitative measure of the impact. The Vulnerability section contains information about the type, group, and description of the vulnerability. The Vulnerability section can help an analyst to identify and classify the vulnerability, but it does not provide a numerical value of the impact. The Profile section contains information about the authentication, times viewed, and aggressiveness of the vulnerability. The Profile section can help an analyst to assess the risk and priority of the vulnerability, but it does not provide a specific measure of the impact on data confidentiality.


NEW QUESTION # 357
A cloud team received an alert that unauthorized resources were being auto-provisioned. After investigating, the team suspects that copyright mining is occurring. Which of the following indicators would
most likely lead the team to this conclusion?
.

  • A. High GPU utilization
  • B. Bandwidth consumption
  • C. Unauthorized changes
  • D. Unusual traffic spikes

Answer: A

Explanation:
High GPU utilization is the most likely indicator that cryptomining is occurring, as it reflects the intensive computational work that is required to solve the complex mathematical problems involved in mining cryptocurrencies. Cryptomining is the process of generating new units of a copyright by using computing power to verify transactions and create new blocks on the blockchain. Cryptomining can be done legitimately by individuals or groups who participate in a mining pool and share the rewards, or illegitimately by threat actors who use malware or scripts to hijack the computing resources of unsuspecting victims and use them for their own benefit. This practice is called cryptojacking, and it can cause performance degradation, increased power consumption, and security risks for the affected systems. Cryptomining typically relies on the GPU (graphics processing unit) rather than the CPU (central processing unit), as the GPU is better suited for parallel processing and can handle more calculations per second. Therefore, a high GPU utilization rate can be a sign that cryptomining is taking place on a system, especially if there is no other explanation for the increased workload. The other options are not as indicative of cryptomining as high GPU utilization, as they can have other causes or explanations. Bandwidth consumption can be affected by many factors, such as network traffic, streaming services, downloads, or updates. It is not directly related to cryptomining, which does not require a lot of bandwidth to communicate with the mining pool or the blockchain network. Unauthorized changes can be a result of many types of malware or cyberattacks, such as ransomware, spyware, or trojans. They are not specific to cryptomining, which does not necessarily alter any files or settings on the system, but rather uses its processing power. Unusual traffic spikes can also be caused by various factors, such as legitimate surges in demand, distributed denial-of-service attacks, or botnets. They are not indicative of cryptomining, which does not generate a lot of traffic or requests to or from the system.


NEW QUESTION # 358
A security analyst reviews a SIEM alert related to a suspicious email and wants to verify the authenticity of the message:
SPF = PASS
DKIM = FAIL
DMARC = FAIL
Which of the following did the analyst most likely discover?

  • A. The message was sent from an authorized mail server but was not signed.
  • B. Log normalization corrupted the data as it was brought into the central repository.
  • C. The email security software did not process all of the records correctly.
  • D. An insider threat altered email security records to mask suspicious DNS resolution traffic.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step The SPF = PASS result confirms the email came from an authorized server, but DKIM = FAIL indicates the message was not properly signed with the expected DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) signature. DMARC = FAIL suggests that because DKIM failed, the overall email authentication failed. This scenario is consistent with a legitimate server sending an unsigned email.
Reference:
CompTIA CySA+ All-in-One Guide (Chapter 5: Email Analysis)
CompTIA CySA+ Practice Tests (Domain 1.3 Email Authentication)


NEW QUESTION # 359
A company receives a penetration test report summary from a third party. The report summary indicates a proxy has some patches that need to be applied. The proxy is sitting in a rack and is not being used, as the company has replaced it with a new one. The CVE score of the vulnerability on the proxy is a 9.8. Which of the following best practices should the company follow with this proxy?

  • A. Decomission the proxy.
  • B. Migrate the proxy to the cloud.
  • C. Patch the proxy
  • D. Leave the proxy as is.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best practice that the company should follow with this proxy is to decommission the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy involves removing or disposing of the proxy from the rack and the network, as well as deleting or wiping any data or configuration on the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy can help eliminate the vulnerability on the proxy, as well as reduce the attack surface, complexity, or cost of maintaining the network. Decommissioning the proxy can also free up space or resources for other devices or systems that are in use or needed by the company.


NEW QUESTION # 360
......

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